Is this way conclusion derived??
Please let me know about the conclusion I'm right or wrong says in the last few seconds of the video !!
In Confidence Interval for two Populations negative Interval stands for 1st Population Variable & Positve Interval stands for 2nd Pop. Var
that's why when we compare both comparison done like this "Like in some GER1 has more value and vice a versa"
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My explanation for the conclusion is - since we are comparing GER 1 to GER 2. Positive interval shows that GER 1 is higher in other words sold more shoes than GER 2 and vice versa. If I'm wrong someone should kindly correct me.
